Star Indian all-rounder Ravindra Jadeja, who announced his retirement from T20Is last month after India’s win in the T20 World Cup 2024 final, is unlikely to be picked for India’s ODI team in the near future. Reports indicate that the 35-year-old cricketer, with 2756 runs and 220 wickets in 197 ODIs, is not in the selection committee’s plans for upcoming matches, including the ICC Champions Trophy next year.

Instead, the selectors are focusing on Axar Patel and Washington Sundar for the spin-bowling all-rounder roles. This decision is reflected in their selection for the upcoming three-match ODI series against Sri Lanka, where Jadeja was not included.

Focus on young talent for future competitions

“There are only six ODIs, including the three in Sri Lanka, before next year’s Champions Trophy. The selectors want to utilize these games by giving more opportunities to Axar Patel and Washington Sundar,” a BCCI source told Hindustan Times. The source emphasized that Jadeja’s exclusion is not due to poor performance but is part of a strategy to explore other options for the future.

Washington Sundar, who won the Player of the Series award in the recent five-match T20I series against Zimbabwe, is viewed as Jadeja’s long-term replacement. The 24-year-old has played 19 ODIs since his debut in December 2017, taking 18 wickets and scoring 265 runs.

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Jadeja’s continued importance in Test cricket

Despite the shift in focus away from Jadeja in ODIs, the BCCI source reassured that Jadeja remains an integral member of India’s Test team. His experience and skills are considered crucial for the upcoming World Test Championship matches, where he will continue to be a key player for the Rohit Sharma-led side.